The following material discusses a valuation template using principles of value investing and the economic logic behind estimating the worth of a business. It is provided solely for educational and informational purposes.
A concise summary of the business, focusing on its economic engine, competitive position, and long run earning power.
Example:
This section should not attempt to predict the stock price. It should describe how the company makes money and why it is worth analyzing from a value-investing perspective.
A set of essential figures needed before running the valuation. Keep these consistent across companies.
\text{FCF}_{0} = \ldots
\text{Shares} = \ldots
\text{Net Cash} = \ldots
We can add EBITDA, ROIC, revenues or anything relevant.
We use a multi-stage free-cash-flow model consistent with the Graham/Buffett logic.
We will write in a way that emphasize the fact that everything is just a multiple of \text{FCF}_0:
\text{PV} = \text{FCF}_0 \times K(g_1,g_2,g_\infty,r)
for some scalar K. Providing that the condition used are unchanged, we will define a “Buffett multiple per dollar of FCF”.
We assume a near term growth rate g_{1}. Free cash flow in years t = 1,\dots,5 is:
\text{FCF}_{t} = \text{FCF}_{0} (1 + g_{1})^{t}, \quad t = 1,\dots,5
Growth slows to g_{2} from year 6 to 10. Using \text{FCF}_{5} = \text{FCF}_{0}(1+g_{1})^{5},
\text{FCF}_{t} = \text{FCF}_{5} (1 + g_{2})^{t-5} = \text{FCF}_{0} (1+g_{1})^{5}(1+g_{2})^{t-5}, \quad t = 6,\dots,10
Long run perpetual growth g_{\infty} starts after year 10. The terminal value at (t=10) is:
\text{TV}_{10} = \frac{\text{FCF}_{10}(1 + g_{\infty})}{r - g_{\infty}} = \text{FCF}_{0} (1+g_{1})^{5}(1+g_{2})^{5} \frac{(1 + g_{\infty})}{r - g_{\infty}}
since:
\text{FCF}_{10} = \text{FCF}_{0}(1+g_{1})^{5}(1+g_{2})^{5}
Each cash flow and the terminal value are discounted at the required return r. The present value is
\text{PV} = \sum_{t=1}^{10} \frac{\text{FCF}_{t}}{(1+r)^t} + \frac{\text{TV}_{10}}{(1+r)^{10}}
Substituting the expressions above and factoring out \text{FCF}_{0},
\text{PV} = \text{FCF}_{0} \cdot K(g_{1},g_{2},g_{\infty},r)
where the DCF factor per 1 unit of current FCF is:
K(g_{1},g_{2},g_{\infty},r) = \sum_{t=1}^{5} \frac{(1+g_{1})^{t}}{(1+r)^t} + (1+g_{1})^{5} \sum_{t=6}^{10} \frac{(1+g_{2})^{t-5}}{(1+r)^t} + (1+g_{1})^{5}(1+g_{2})^{5} \frac{(1+g_{\infty})}{(r - g_{\infty})(1+r)^{10}}
This makes the Buffett-style interpretation explicit:
Then for any company where the discount rate is the same we can just plug its \text{FCF}_{0} per share into:
V_{\text{intrinsic, per share}} = \text{FCF}_{0,\text{per share}} \cdot K
and apply the margin of safety on top.
Explain the of discount rate. A common setup:
r_f = \ldots
\text{RP} = \ldots
r = r_f + \text{RP}
This keeps the analysis consistent across companies.
We can use three scenarios to test robustness.
Compute:
\text{Value}\times {\text{Bearish}} = \frac{\text{PV}\times{\text{Bearish}}}{\text{Shares}}
\text{Value}\times{\text{Base}} = \frac{\text{PV}\times{\text{Base}}}{\text{Shares}}
\text{Value}\times{\text{Bullish}} = \frac{\text{PV}\times{\text{Bullish}}}{\text{Shares}}
A table will help to summarize the valuation:
| Case | Intrinsic value per share | Margin of safety | Notes |
|---|---|---|---|
| Bearish | $… | …% | |
| Base | $… | …% | |
| Bullish | $… | …% |
We can then explain what the numbers mean:
This section turns a numerical model into an investment viewpoint.
A short, actionable conclusion:
We can add any supporting material:
Intrinsic Value (Total Firm PV): –
Intrinsic Value per Share:
After Margin of Safety: –